Originally Posted by
Tx33_averageJoe
First off I am not a lawyer...
I'm sure someone with ties to the legal field will chime in here for a more direct response but Tx defines as follows:
In Texas, it is a crime to commit prostitution. Under Texas law, a person commits the crime of prostitution if they knowingly engage in or offer to engage in sexual contact for a fee or if they solicit another person in a public place for sexual conduct
So yes, under your example it is soliciting as there is a sexual act occurring. Keep in mind though no act actually has to occur. Offering money for such service is essentially solicitation even if you never actually do anything. I my mind "sexual act" is very broad and would be interpreted by prosecutors and judges so if you are worried about "crossing a line" dont start in the hobby. It is an all or nothing thing.
The lawyer mongers can chime in and correct me if any of this is inaccurate. I tried to put it in layman's terms.